The point of the proof is that it's not an open set because $(0,0)$ is not an interior point. For that matter $(0,k)$ for any $k$ is not an interior point, but the proof choose $(0,0)$ because it makes the math easier.
To show $(0,0)$ fails the interior test set we have to show there does NOT exist an $r > 0$ so that $B_r(0,0)$ is contained in $A$.
To do that we just have to find a point $(j,k)$ so that $d((0,0),(j,k)) < r$ and $(j,k) \in A$. If $(j,k)\not \in A$ then $j < 0$. And it doesn't matter what $k$ is. So to make the math easy we will let $k = 0$.
So we need a $(j,0)$ so that 1: $\sqrt{(j-0)^2 + (0-0)^2} = |j| < r$. and 2: $(j,0) \not \in A$ i.e. $j < 0$.
So we need $-r < j < 0$.
.... and they chose $\frac {-r}2$. It actually doesnt matter what you choose. They chose $(\frac {-r}2,0)$ because it makes the math easier.
The could have chosen $(-\frac{r}{e},10^{-57}r)$ but that would make our math hard as hell. [ $\sqrt{(-\frac{r}{e}-0)^2 + (10^{-57}r - 0)^2} < r$]
But with testing is $(\frac {-r}2,0)\in B_r(0,0)$ the math is easy.
Is $d((\frac {-r}2,0),(0,0)) < r$? Of course.
And is $(\frac {-r}2, 0) \in A$? Of course not.
So $A$ is not open.
As for the question in the title, the French-railroad open ball $B_F(x,r)$ is:
- the open euclidean ball $B(x,r)$ if $x=0$;
- the segment $x_{(r)}:=\left\{\frac t{\lVert x\rVert}\,:\,t\in(\lVert x\rVert-r,\lVert x\rVert+r)\right\}$ if $x\ne 0$ and $r\le\lVert x\rVert$;
- $B(0,r-\lVert x\rVert)\cup x_{(r)}$ if $r>\lVert x\rVert$ and $x\ne0$.
Therefore I would contend that an Euclidean open ball $B$ is a French-railroad open ball if and only if $0$ is the center of $B$. It is clear that an Euclidean ball does not fall into the case (1) unless its center is $0$, and it can never fall into case (2) or (3) because they aren't Euclidean open (case (3) always has an "antenna" protruding out of the ball in the direction of $x$).
As for $B$ being French-railroad open, this is always the case because you can see it as union of open segments and possibly a small Euclidean ball centered in $0$, and all of those can be chosen to be French-railroad balls.
Best Answer
Hint : use that $$\forall x,y\in \mathbb R^2, \frac{1}{\sqrt 2}d_\infty(x,y) \leq d_2(x,y)\leq d_\infty(x,y)$$