I am reading "Introduction to Mathematical Logic" by Elliott Mendelson, and I am currently at the axiomization of propositional calculus. Mendelson presents the following three axioms (with modus ponens as the only rule of inference):
$A1: B \implies (C \implies B)$
$A2: (B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies ((B \implies C) \implies (B \implies D))$
$A3: (\lnot C \implies \lnot B) \implies ((\lnot C \implies B) \implies C)$
Immediately after this, Mendelson proves $B \implies B$ and then leaves it as an exercise to prove $(\lnot C \implies \lnot B) \implies (B \implies C)$. Mauro provided a great and detailed proof of the latter in response to the following post: Prove $( \lnot C \implies \lnot B) \implies (B \implies C)$ without the Deduction Theorem
He does so by using several intermediate results, namely:
$T1: (C \implies D) \implies ((B \implies C) \implies (B \implies D))$
$T2: (B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies D))$
My question is centered around the proof of T2. Mauro proves T2 by proving and then using another intermediate result:
$T3: B \implies ((B \implies C) \implies C)$
However, I believe I found a proof that doesn't require T3. I would like to know if my proof is correct or if there is something I'm missing. Here is my proof (using [ ] occasionally for readability):
$1. \; [B \implies (C \implies D)] \implies [(B \implies C) \implies (B \implies D)]$
—A2
$2. \; [(B \implies C) \implies (B \implies D)] \implies [(C \implies (B \implies C)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies D))]$
—T1
$3. \; [B \implies (C \implies D)] \implies [(C \implies (B \implies C)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies D))]$
—From 1, 2, T1, and MP twice
$4. \; [(B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies C))] \implies [(B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies D))]$
—From 3, A2, and MP
$5. \; (C \implies (B \implies C))$
—A1
$6. \; [(B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies C))]$
—From 5, A1, and MP
$7. \; [(B \implies (C \implies D)) \implies (C \implies (B \implies D))]$
—From 4, 6, and MP
Best Answer
Your proof is correct, but you don’t really need T1 either. It’s easiest, in my opinion, to just prove Hypothetical Syllogism as a meta-theorem, and then proceed.
If you’re unfamiliar with the proof of said meta-theorem, here it is:
Then, we can proceed more naturally. I’m going to leave the citations undone since they’re just axioms, modus ponens, or Hypothetical Syllogism.
$(A \to (B \to C)) \to ((A \to B) \to (A \to C))$
$((A \to B) \to (A \to C)) \to (B \to ((A \to B) \to (A \to C)))$
$(A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to ((A \to B) \to (A \to C)))$
$(B \to ((A \to B) \to (A \to C))) \to ((B \to (A \to B)) \to (B \to (A \to C)))$
$(A \to (B \to C)) \to ((B \to (A \to B)) \to (B \to (A \to C)))$
$5 \to ((A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to B))) \to ((A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to C)))$
$((A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to B))) \to ((A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to C)))$
$B \to (A \to B)$
$8 \to ((A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to B)))$
$(A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to B))$
$(A \to (B \to C)) \to (B \to (A \to C))$