Suppose there is a set $A$ and $P$ is a proper subset of $A$. Also, suppose that $B$ is any subset (not necessarily a proper subset) of $A$. Then, are we justified in writing
$$P \subseteq B \subseteq A$$
In other words, can we be sure that it is not the case that $$B \subseteq P \subseteq A$$
Edit: $A, B, P$ are all finite sets.
Best Answer
No. For example, take $A = \{ 1, 2 \}$ and $P = \{ 1 \} \subsetneq A$.
So there isn't really much you can say about the relationship between a proper subset and a general subset.
I should also add: $P \subseteq B \subseteq A$ and $B \subseteq P \subseteq A$ are not mutually exclusive (e.g. they're both true when $P=B$), and one being false does not imply that the other is true (as the above example demonstrates), so your "in other words" is inaccurate.