Proof of Lagrange’s interpolation formula

analysisfunctionslagrange-interpolationpolynomialsproof-explanation

Given $n+1$ points $(x_i,f_i)$, $i=0,1,2,\ldots,n,$ with $x_i\neq x_j$ for $i\neq j$, define $L_k(x)$ to be

$$\frac{(x-x_0)(x-x_1)\cdots(x-x_{k-1})(x-x_{k+1})\cdots(x-x_n)}{(x_k-x_0)(x_k-x_1)\cdots(x_k-x_{k-1})(x_k-x_{k+1})\cdots(x_k-x_n)}\qquad\cdots(1)$$

Show that $L_k(x_j)$ is a polynomial of degree $n$, that $L_k(x_j)=0$ for $j\neq k$ and $L_k(x_k)=1$. Hence show that

$$f(x)=f_0L_0(x)+f_1L_1(x)+\ldots+f_nL_n(x)$$

is a polynomial of degree $n$ and that $f(x_k)=f_k$ for $k=0,1,2,\ldots,n$.

The polynomial $f(x)$ is called Lagrange's interpolation formula.


I try to search the proof on websites but I don't understand how to proof $(1)$.

This problem comes from Modern Engineering Mathematics by Glyn James in 1993.

Best Answer

I think it is easier if you use the product notation:

$$L_k (x) = \frac{\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x-x_i)} {\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_k-x_i)} = \prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n \frac{(x-x_i)} {(x_k-x_i)}$$

The bottom is a product of numerical values, hence again a number. Instead the top is a product of $n$ linear terms hence a polynomial of degree $n$. Nothing to prove just a matter of fact. The fact $i\neq k$ avoid singularity of the form $\frac{1}{0}$.

$L_k$ acts as a "switch" when evaluated on the original points just because of their definition

$L_k(x_k) = \frac{\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_k-x_i)} {\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_k-x_i)} = \prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n \frac{(x_k-x_i)} {(x_k-x_i)} = 1$

$L_k(x_j) = \frac{\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_j-x_i)} {\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_k-x_i)} = (x_j - x_j) \frac{\prod_{i=0, i\neq k \neq j}^n (x_j-x_i)}{\prod_{i=0, i\neq k}^n (x_k-x_i)} = 0$

This proves $(1)$.

$f(x) = \sum_{i=0}^n f_i L_i(x)$ will be just the form of the polynomial passing through all the given points ${(x_i, f_i)}_{i=0}^n$. The $L_i$ form a basis of the basis of polynomials.

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