Proof of Euler’s Theorem using Lagrange

group-theorytotient-function

Theorem : If $a,n \in \mathbb{N}$, $\gcd(a,n) = 1$ then $a^{\phi (n)} \equiv 1 \pmod n$

I am going through the proof that uses Lagrange's theorem

In the proof, we use the fact that if $G$ (s.t. $o(G) < \infty$) is a group and $a \in G$, then $a^{o(G)} = e$. The proof of this relies on the existence of the order of $a$, which could be infinite (ie, the order does not exist). How do I show that $o(a)$ exists? (Note that we cannot use Euler's theorem to show it exists because $o(a)\ | \ o(G) = \phi(n)$ and in the worst case, we can choose $o(a) = \phi(n)$).

Best Answer

Note that $1, a, \ldots, a^{o(G)}$ are $o(G) + 1$ elements of $G$ and thus, cannot all be distinct. Thus, $$a^m = a^n$$ for some $0 \le n < m \le o(G)$ which gives you that $$a^{m-n} = 1.$$ Since $m - n \neq 0$, that gives you that $a$ has finite order.


In general, any element of a finite group has a finite order.

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