Predicate Logic Equivalence Intuition

first-order-logiclogicpredicate-logic

Feel free to redirect me if this was asked before. I have troubles understanding the following identity of predicate logic (it holds only if the domain of discourse is non empty):
$$
\forall x \phi(x) \Rightarrow C \equiv \exists x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow C)
$$

In words: If all $x$ satisfy $\phi$ then C is true $\equiv$ there exists at least one $x$ so that if $x$ satisfies $\phi$ then C is true.

For example let

  • $x$: question in exam
  • $\phi(x)$: $x$ was solved
  • $C$: i passed the exam

Then the left side of the equivalency reads "If i solved every question in the exam then i passed the exam". The right side reads "There exists an exercise that, if solved correctly, makes me pass the exam. That does not seem right. If i have 3 questions with 5 points each and i need 8 points to pass, no question on its own directly implies passing if solved correctly. Do you see where i made a mistake? And could you formulate the right version of my example? Thank you very much in advance.

Best Answer

$$(\forall x \phi(x) \Rightarrow C) \equiv \exists x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow C)\tag1$$

  • $x$: question in exam
  • $\phi(x)$: $x$ was solved
  • $C$: i passed the exam

The left side of the equivalency reads "If I solved every question in the exam then I passed the exam".

The right side reads "There exists an exercise that, if solved correctly, makes me pass the exam.

Your left- and right-side translations aren't consistent with each other: the right side should instead be "for some question, if I solved it, then I passed the exam". On both sides, we're describing a past event, perhaps due to incomplete knowledge rather than the marking rubric's specifications.

That does not seem right. If i have 3 questions with 5 points each and I need 8 points to pass, no question on its own directly implies passing if solved correctly.

By correctly noting that $$(\forall x \phi(x) \Rightarrow C) \kern.6em\not\kern-.6em\implies (\exists x\phi(x) \Rightarrow C),$$ you are countering the false claim $$(\forall x \phi(x) \Rightarrow C) \equiv (\exists x\phi(x) \Rightarrow C),\tag2$$ which is a stronger claim than statement $(1).$

The forward direction of statement $(1)$ is troubling you, so let's prove it. Suppose that its LHS premise $(\forall x \phi(x) \Rightarrow C)$ is true; then either of these possibilities must be true:

  1. passed the test:

    then $(\phi(x) \Rightarrow C)$ is true, so $\exists x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow C)$ is true.

  2. failed the test:

    then, by letting $x=p$ be the missed question, $\exists x(\phi(x) \Rightarrow C)$ is vacuously true.

Related Question