There is a cute argument for $b=c+1$ though I don't know how to pull it through in the general case.
Let $U$ be the set of ordered $c+1$-tuples of sets of cardinality $c$ in which no set repeats. Then, obviously, $|U|=(c+1)!{{n\choose c}\choose c+1}$. Let $V$ be the set of ordered $c$-tuples of sets of cardinality $c+1$ in which no set repeats. Then $|V|=c!{{n\choose c+1}\choose c}$. Now take any element of $V$, i.e., an ordered family of sets $A_1,\dots,A_{c}$. Take any $a_1\in A_1$ ($c+1$ choices). Suppose that $a_1\in A_1,\dots,a_k\in A_k$ are already chosen. Then we want to choose $a_{k+1}\in A_{k+1}$ so that $a_{k+1}\ne a_j$ and $A_{k+1}\setminus \{a_{k+1}\}\ne A_j\setminus\{a_j\}$ for all $j=1,\dots,k$. Suppose that we have $\ell$ prohibitions of the first type. Then, if we honor them, the prohibitions of the second type for the corresponding sets will be honored automatically (if $a_j\in A_{k+1}$ and we don't remove it, then surely $A_{k+1}\setminus \{a_{k+1}\}\ne A_j\setminus\{a_j\}$. The remaining $k-\ell$ sets introduce at most one prohibition of the second type each, so we have $\le k$ prohibitions total. Thus we have $\ge c+1-k$ choices for $a_{k+1}$. Once we run the whole procedure, the reduced sets $A_j$ listed in the same order and the set $\{a_1,\dots,a_c\}$ listed last will constitute an element of $U$ and each element of $V$ will generate $\ge(c+1)!$ different elements of $U$ (by different choices of $a_1,\dots,a_c$. On the other hand, each element of $U$ can be obtained from at most $c!$ elements of $V$ (that is the number of ways to distribute the elements of the last $c+1$-st set among the first $c$. This immediately gives a non-strict inequality you want. To make it strict, you need to assume $c>1$ and $n\ge c+1$ (otherwise you have equality), in which case the ordered sequence of sets $A_j=\{1,2,\dots,c+1\}\setminus\{j\}$ has fewer than $c!$ distribution options (none at all, really) resulting in a legitimate element of $V$.
Edit (the general case)
In this case it will be convenient to define $U$ as the set of all ordered $b$-tuples of sets of cardinality $c$ such that the sets are pairwise different (as sets), the first $c$ sets are unordered, and the last $b-c$ sets are ordered. Then $|U|=b!(c!)^{b-c}{{n\choose c}\choose b}$. Let $V$ be the same as before (ordered $c$-tuples of unordered subsets of cardinality $b$ in which the sets are pairwise different), so $|V|=c!{{n\choose b}\choose c}$.
Now let $\langle A_1,\dots, A_c\rangle$ be an element of $V$. We want to remove $b-c$ elements $a_{j,1},a_{j,2},\dots,a_{j,b-c}$ from $A_j$ and form $b-c$ new ordered sets $B_k=\langle a_{1,k},a_{2,k},\dots, a_{c,k}\rangle$ ($k=1,\dots,b-c$) to get an element of $U$.
To this end start with choosing $a_{1,1},\dots,a_{1,b-c}\in A_1$ in an arbitrary way, which gives $b(b-1)\dots(b-c+1)$ choices. Now, when choosing $a_{k+1,1}\in A_{k+1}$ for $k\ge 1$, add to the standard prohibitions $a_{k+1,1}\ne a_{j,1}$, $A_{k+1}\setminus\{a_{k+1,1}\}\ne A_j\setminus\{a_{j,1}\}$ ($j\le k$), which exclude at most $k$ elements just as before, the prohibitions $a_{k+1,1}\ne a_{1,m}$ ($m>1$), which exclude additional $b-c-1$ elements at most, leaving $c+1-k$ choices as before. These additional prohibitions guarantee that the set $B_1=\{a_{1,1},a_{2,1},\dots, a_{c,1}\}$ does not contain any of the elements $a_{1,m}$ ($m>1$) and, therefore, will be different from every set $B_m$ ($m>1$) as an unordered set and we still have $c!$ choices.
Having constructed $B_1$, we construct $B_2$ with the standard restrictions $a_{k+1,2}\ne a_{j,2}$, $A_{k+1}\setminus\{a_{k+1,1},a_{k+1,2}\}\ne A_j\setminus\{a_{j,1},a_{j,2}\}$ ($j\le k$) and additional restrictions $a_{k+1,2}\ne a_{1,m}$ but now with $m>2$. This gives $c!$ choices again, and so on. Thus, from each element of $V$, we get $b(b-1)\dots(b-c+1) (c!)^{b-c}$ distinct elements of $U$. The recovery of an element of $V$ from an element of $U$ is now possible in just one way, if at all, which, again, gives a non-strict inequality. I leave it to you to figure out when and how it becomes strict in this case.
Ok, I think I've found an answer along with a proof. I will go through a series of claims (of course there may be more efficient ways of going about this). The main result is in Claim 3.
Claim 1. For nonnegative integers $m, r, t$ we have
$$ \sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j}\binom{j+r}{t+r}(-1)^{j} = (-1)^{m+t}\binom{r}{m}. \tag*{$(1)$} $$
Proof. We proceed by Egorychev's method. We will use the fact that
$$ \binom{j+r}{t+r} = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{j+r}}{z^{t+r+1}} \, dz, $$
where the integral is a contour integral over a circle $|z|=\varepsilon$ for some $0<\varepsilon<\infty$.
Using this fact, and interchanging the summation and integral signs when necessary, we have
\begin{align*}
\sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j}\binom{j+r}{t+r}(-1)^{j} &= \sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j} \left( \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{j+r}}{z^{t+r+1}} \, dz \right) (-1)^{j} \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \; \sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j} \frac{(1+z)^{j+r}}{z^{t+r+1}} (-1)^{j} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{r}}{z^{t+r+1}} \; \sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j} (1+z)^{j} (-1)^{j} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{r}}{z^{t+r+1}} \; \sum_{j=0}^{m+t} \binom{m+t}{j} (-1-z)^{j} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{r}}{z^{t+r+1}} (1 - 1 - z)^{m+t} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{r}}{z^{t+r+1}} (-z)^{m+t} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint \frac{(1+z)^{r}}{z^{r-m+1}} (-1)^{m+t} \, dz \\[1.2ex]
&= (-1)^{m+t}\binom{r}{r-m} \\[1.2ex]
&= (-1)^{m+t}\binom{r}{m}.
\end{align*}
$$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$
Claim 2. For nonnegative integers $n, r, s$ with $s\ge r$, we have
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n-r}{k-r}\binom{k}{s}(-1)^{k} = (-1)^{n}\binom{r}{n-s}. \tag*{$(2)$} $$
Proof. If $s > n$, then both sides of $(2)$ are clearly $0$, so for the proof let us assume $s\le n$. Take $m = n-s$ and $t = s-r$ and plug these into $(1)$. We obtain
$$ \sum_{j=0}^{n-r} \binom{n-r}{j}\binom{j+r}{s}(-1)^{j} = (-1)^{n-r}\binom{r}{n-s}. $$
We can shift the summation index by taking $j = k-r$ (where $k$ is the new index). By doing this and then multiplying both sides by $(-1)^{r}$, we get $(2)$.
$$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$
Claim 3. For nonnegative integers $n, r, s$, we have
$$ \boxed{ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\binom{k}{r}\binom{k}{s}(-1)^{k} = (-1)^{n}\binom{n}{n-r,\, n-s,\, r+s-n} } $$
where the RHS involves the multinomial coefficient.
Proof. Without loss of generality, assume $s\ge r$. Consider the fact that
$$ \binom{n}{k}\binom{k}{r} = \binom{n}{r}\binom{n-r}{k-r} $$
and use this to obtain
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\binom{k}{r}\binom{k}{s}(-1)^{k} = \binom{n}{r}\sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n-r}{k-r}\binom{k}{s}(-1)^{k}. $$
By Claim 2, we see that the RHS reduces to
$$ \binom{n}{r}\cdot (-1)^{n}\binom{r}{n-s}. $$
This is then decomposed as
\begin{align*}
\binom{n}{r}\cdot (-1)^{n}\binom{r}{n-s} &= (-1)^{n} \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}\frac{r!}{(n-s)!(r-n+s)!} \\
&= (-1)^{n}\frac{n!}{(n-r)!(n-s)!(r+s-n)!},
\end{align*}
and the fraction in the last expression can be identified as a multinomial coefficient, giving us
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}\binom{k}{r}\binom{k}{s}(-1)^{k} = (-1)^{n}\binom{n}{n-r,\, n-s,\, r+s-n} $$
as desired.
$$\tag*{$\blacksquare$}$$
Best Answer
$$\frac{\binom{n}{r}}{\binom{n}{r-1}}=\frac{n+1-r}{r}$$ Thus, if you divide both side of the equation by $\binom{18}{j-1}$ , then you can simplify it and that will decrease your calculations.