Openness of $(0,1)$ with non-standard topology on $X$

general-topologymetric-spaces

I am unsure whether there is a mistake or omission in my professor's lecture notes or if I am not seeing the big picture.

He first defines openness in a general metric space like this:

A subset $U \subset X$ is open if for all $x \in U$, $\exists \epsilon > 0$ such that $\forall y \in X$, $d(x,y) < \epsilon$ implies $y \in U$.

This definition makes sense to me. In the usual topology on $\mathbb{R}$, it means that we can find an open ball around any point in the set that is entirely contained within. I cannot quite visual what this mean for other metrics, but this is certainly an (appropriately) more general definition.

My professor than asserts that $(0,1)$ is open and $[0,1]$ is closed. In $\mathbb{R}$ under the usual topology, this makes perfect sense and is easy to prove. But the metric space is not defined, nor is the metric, so I do not know how to even begin to prove this fact.

Am I correct that we need to define the space and the topology? Does it not matter because $(0,1)$ is open in any topology $X$ that contains $\mathbb{R}$? Is the same true for any such metric $d$?

Best Answer

The usual topology is that induced by the metric defined by $d(x,y)=|x-y|$.

Incidentally, $(0,1)$ is not open in some possible topologies on $\Bbb R$. One easy example is the trivial topology, in which the only open sets are $\Bbb R$ and $\emptyset$.

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