**Question:**Let π be a rational number and π an irrational number. Prove the following:
π β π β ππ is irrational.
Proof by Contradiction:
I am not sure if my proof is correct. I am having trouble with the proper negation of the statement, do I only need to negate the ($\rightarrow$ ab is irrational) part in the question for the proof?
If yes, then is line 1 in the proof correct, or would it suffice to say 'Suppose $ab$ $ \in$ $\mathbb{Q}$' in line 1, omitting the conditions for a and b, since they are the stated in the question?
Also, in line 4, do I need to write that $a$ $\in \mathbb{Q}\ \land a \ne 0$ in order to divide by $a$ or can I just write divide $ab$ by $a$ to get $b = \frac{md}{nc}$
Thank you.
Best Answer
Your argument is correct. The theorem can be restated as follows: if $a$ is a non-zero rational, and $b$ is irrational, then $ab$ is irrational, which is essentially your first line. Note that itβs not necessary to argue by contradiction: the theorem is logically equivalent to the assertion that if $a$ is a non-zero rational, and $ab$ is rational, then $b$ is rational, which is what youβve proved directly.
What you need to write depends on the requirements under which youβre working. As an instructor Iβd be happy to see something like this:
A proof by contradiction would also be fine, but Iβd rather see it in something like this form:
I would prefer not to see an argument in the format that you used, with numbered statements and reasons β what I think of as high school geometry style β because it is nothing like normal mathematical writing. (I realize that you may not have a choice in the matter.)