Multplication operator self-adjoint

adjoint-operatorsfunctional-analysisoperator-theoryself-adjoint-operatorsunbounded-operators

I have to show that the multiplication operator $M_{f}:D\to L^{2}(\mathbb{R})$ with $M_{f}g:=f\cdot g$ is self-adjoint if and only if $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{C}$ is real-valued, where $D$ denotes the natural domain (e.g. $g\in D$ if and only if $M_{f}g\in L^{2}(\mathbb{R})$)

In the proof of the direction $\Leftarrow$ i have the following problem:

So suppose $M_{f}$ is self-adjoint. Then we have for all $g,h\in D$
$$\langle M_{f}g,h\rangle = \langle g,M_{f}h\rangle.$$

which is equal to the statement:

$$\forall g,h\in D:\int_{\mathbb{R}}(f(x)-\overline{f}(x))\overline{g}(x)h(x)\,\mathrm{d}x=0$$

But then I can just say that $f(x)=\overline{f}(x)$ almost everywhere. How can I show that $f$ is real-valued on the whole domain?

Best Answer

Since you're working with $L^2$, all functions are identified up to sets of measure zero. So, you're good!

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