Morphism of presheaves is an epimorphism if and only if it is pointwise epi

algebraic-geometrycategory-theorysheaf-theory

In https://mathoverflow.net/questions/17953/can-epi-mono-for-natural-transformations-be-checked-pointwise, Tom Leinster says that:

If a natural transformation between functors $C\to D$ is pointwise epi then it's epi. The converse doesn't always hold, but it does if $D$ has pushouts. Dually, pointwise mono implies mono, and conversely if $D$ has pullbacks.

In particular, when $C^\text{op}$ is the category of open sets of a topological space $X$ and $D$ is any category with pushouts, this seems to imply that a morphism of presheaves (with values in $D$) $\varphi:\mathscr{F}\to\mathscr{G}$ is an epimorphism if and only if $\varphi_U:\mathscr{F}(U)\to\mathscr{G}(U)$ is an epimorphism for every $U\subset X$.

I know that what I've stated is false even if $\mathscr{F}$ and $\mathscr{G}$ are sheaves. But what am I getting wrong?

Best Answer

Well an epimorphism of sheaves need not be an epimorphism of presheaves.

More generally : let $C\subset D$ be a subcategory. Then an arrow $f:x\to y$ in $C$ which is an epimorphism in $D$ is automatically an epimorphism in $C$ (it's really easy to see); but the converse might not be true: there could be arrows in $D$ : $h,g: y\rightrightarrows z$ such that $h\circ f= g\circ f$ and $h\neq g$, but $g$ or $h$ or both might just not be in $C$; or $z$ might not be.

If $C$ is a full subcategory of $D$ (as in the case of sheaves), then it's simply that sometimes $z\notin C$ and there will be no such $z$ in $C$. Let's look at another example, perhaps simpler, to see what's happening:

let $D$ be the category of abelian groups, and $C$ the full subcategory of $D$ whose objects are torsion-free abelian groups. Then $2: \mathbb{Z\to Z}$ lies in $C$. Clearly, it is not an epimorphism in $D$.

However, it is an epimorphism in $C$. Indeed, if $A$ is torsion-free and $g,h : \mathbb Z\to A$ agree on $2\mathbb Z$, then they must agree (as $g(2x) = h(2x) \implies 2(h(x)-g(x)) = 0 \implies h(x) = g(x)$). So here you clearly see that $C$ sees $f$ as an epimorphism because it lacks some objects, abelian groups with torsion (specifically : $2$-torsion)

In the case of sheaves and presheaves, pretty much the same happens : suppose $F\to G$ is a morphism of sheaves such that any section in $G$ has local antecedents. Then no sheaf $H$ is going to be able to receive two different maps from $G$ that agree on $F$, because locally they must be the same, and so they must be the same globally.

In fact, that's precisely the description of epimorphisms in sheaves (although you have to prove it): a morphism of sheaves is an epimorphism (in sheaves) if and only if every section in $G$ has local antecedents (that is, for each $x\in X$ there is an open surrounding $x$ where the restriction of the section has an antecedent)

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