Mean value theorem for integrals proof

derivativesintegrationreal-analysis

Can you give me a proof of Mean value theorem for integrals without using Fundamental theorem of calculus (because I want to prove FTC using MVT for integrals).

Best Answer

Let $f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be continuous. By the extreme value theorem there exist $x_{m},x_{M} \in [a,b]$ such that $f(x_m)=m:= \inf_{x\in [a,b]}f(x)$ and $f(x_M)=M:=\sup_{x\in [a,b]}f(x)$. Now clearly $$f(x_m)(b-a)=\int_a^b m \: dx \leq \int_a^b f(x) \: dx \leq \int_a^b M \: dx = f(x_M)(b-a).$$ From here the intermediate value theorem ensures the existence of a $\xi$ between $x_m$ and $x_M$, such that $$f(\xi)=\frac{1}{b-a} \int_a^b f(x) \: dx$$