[Math] $x^4 + 1$ reducible over $\mathbb{R}$… is this possible

abstract-algebrapolynomials

I am seeing this on a homework and am wondering if this is a typo. I am aware that $x^4 + 1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$. I know the following:

A polynomial being irreducible over some ring does not imply that it is irreducible over some superring.

$x^4 + 1$ has no linear factors

and if it has no linear factors, then it can only be factored into polynomials of degree 2, and for there to be no term $a_1x^1$, the factor must be of the form $a_2x^2 + a_0$, and this can be done in $\mathbb{C}$ but not in $\mathbb{R}$.

Best Answer

Even if you don't know the explicit factorization, you certainly know that a quartic polynomial in $\mathbb{R}[X]$ is reducible.

Indeed, a consequence of the fact that every polynomial of positive degree in $\mathbb{C}[X]$ has a root, we can see that the irreducible polynomials over $\mathbb{R}[X]$ are those of degree $1$ and the quadratic polynomials with negative discriminant.

To wit, let $f(X)\in\mathbb{R}[X]$ be monic of degree $>1$. If $f$ has a real root, then it is reducible. So, assume it has no real root. Since it has a complex root $a$, also $\bar{a}$ is a root, because $$ f(\bar{a})=\overline{f(a)}=\bar{0}=0 $$ (overlining means conjugation). Thus $f$ is divisible (in $\mathbb{C}$) by $X-a$ and $X-\bar{a}$, so also by their product $$ g(X)=(X-a)(X-\bar{a})=X^2-(a+\bar{a})X+a\bar{a} $$ (because $X-a$ and $X-\bar{a}$ are coprime in $\mathbb{C}[X]$). However, $g(X)$ has real coefficients, so the quotient of the division of $f(X)$ by $g(X)$ is again a polynomial in $\mathbb{R}[X]$. So, unless $f$ has degree $2$ (and so $f(X)=g(X)$), $f$ is reducible.

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