[Math] Why wouldn’t someone accept Gentzen’s consistency proof

logicpeano-axiomsproof-theory

Reading the consistency section of the Peano Axioms wikipedia page, I came across this sentence:

The vast majority of contemporary mathematicians believe that Peano's
axioms are consistent, relying either on intuition or the acceptance
of a consistency proof such as Gentzen's proof.

If Gentzen's proof shows the consistency of PA, then what is there to "accept"? Is the point that some mathematicians might not accept that Gentzen's proof shows the consistency of PA because we don't know whether the system Gentzen uses in his proof is consistent?

Best Answer

Essentially due to Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems, proofs of the consistency of $\mathsf{PA}$ must involve methods that transcend $\mathsf{PA}$ itself. If one has any doubts about the consistency of $\mathsf{PA}$, those doubts are likely only to be amplified concerning the methods used to prove the consistency of $\mathsf{PA}$. (For example, from $\mathsf{ZF}$, then you can easily construct a model of $\mathsf{PA}$, but the consistency of $\mathsf{ZF}$ is "more debatable" than that of $\mathsf{PA}$, so you haven't really gained anything.)

Gentzen's proof relies on infinitary processes (in particular, induction up to $\varepsilon_0$; see Wikipedia), and may not have been accepted by the Hilbert school (who sought purely finitary proofs of consistency). The ordinal $\varepsilon_0$ is important here because (assuming its consistency) $\mathsf{PA}$ cannot prove that it is well-founded, and it is basically this move that transcends $\mathsf{PA}$.

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