[Math] Why the Laplace transform of u(-t) is 1/s

laplace transform

Yesterday I had my first contact with the Laplace transform, in an Electric Circuits class. $\mathcal{L} \left\{ u \left( -t \right) \right\}$ showed up. Our teacher said it was equal to $\frac{1}{s}$, but couldn't tell exactly why.

I want to know if it's possible to explain why $\mathcal{L} \left\{ u \left( -t \right) \right\} = \frac{1}{s}$ by using known properties and transforms, like those found in Wikipedia's page about Laplace transform, as if I was trying to do it myself, considering I learned the very basics.

No, it's not for an assignment.

Thanks in advance.

Edit: $u \left( t \right)$ is the unit step function. $u \left( -t \right)$ was used because it was needed reversed.

Best Answer

I realize that this is an older question, but I'll answer it anyway in case other people are looking for the answer.

As an electrical engineer, a Laplace transform usually references the two-sided Laplace transform. Therefore the function being transformed does not have to be causal, meaning that the function can equal something other than $0$ for $t < 0$. (Here's a wiki reference to the two-sided Laplace transform: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two-sided_Laplace_transform )

Using this version of the Laplace transform,

$$\mathcal{L}\{ u(-t)\}(s) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty u(-t)e^{-st} \ dt = \int_{-\infty}^0 e^{-st} \ dt = -\frac{1}{s}$$

This is true only when $Re[s] < 0$, which is this transform's region of convergence.

I hope this helps!

Sources: I'm an electrical engineering student.