Inverse of x -> x + sin(x) – Why Not Expressible in Elementary Functions?

field-theoryfunctionsgalois-theory

The function

$f(x)=x+\sin(x)$

is easily checked to be a bijection from the reals to itself, and so it has a unique inverse $y\mapsto g(y)$ such that $f\circ g=g\circ f$ are both the identity map.

Now $g$ will almost certainly be a function which is not expressible using "the functions in a high-schooler's toolkit" (by which I guess I mean $\exp$, $\log$, and, if you like, the usual trigonometric functions and their friends like $\sinh$, although of course these can all be of course built from exponentials anyway). For purely recreational reasons (stemming from conversations I've had whilst teaching undergraduates) I'm interested in how one proves this sort of thing.

A few years ago I was interested in a related question, and took the trouble to learn some differential Galois theory. My motivation at the time was learning how to prove things like why $h(t):=\int_0^t e^{x^2} dx$ is not expressible in terms of these calculator-button functions (I'm sure there's a better name for them but I'm afraid I don't know it). I've realised that since then I've forgotten most of what I knew, but furthermore I am also unclear about whether this is the way one is supposed to proceed. Is the idea that I come up with some linear differential equation satisfied by $g$ and then apply some differential Galois theory technique? In fact, one of the many things that I have forgotten is the following: if $F$ is a field equipped with a differential operator $D$, and $E/F$ is the field extension obtained by adding a non-zero root of $Dh=ch$, with $c\in F$, then the Galois group of $E/F$ is solvable, whereas the equation itself might not be, in terms of calculator-button functions, if I can't integrate $c$.

Can a more enlightened soul explain to me how one is supposed to proceed? I wonder whether I am somehow conflating two ideas and the differential Galois theory business is a red herring, but it seemed simpler to ask rather than continuing to flounder around.

Best Answer

This paper, titled "Elementary functions and their inverses" by J.F. Ritt addresses your question.

Some time ago, in searching for why some functions don't have elementary integrals, I was led to the work of Liouville, as digested by Ritt in his book "Integration in finite terms; Liouville's theory of elementary methods". It was written in 1948 so I think the copyright has expired, and you can find a download link via a Google search.

Liouville's results on elementary integrals were derived using quite basic tools (it is hard to be precise here on what I mean by "basic tools", best you see for yourself). The latter portions of Ritt's book explore elementary solutions of differential equations, which is based on the work of mathematicians after Liouville, and it is only from then that some differential Galois theory is used.

Ritt's paper uses methods somewhat similar to Liouville and in particular, does not seem to use differential Galois theory. However, it is possible there may be a more modern approach to your question that does use differential Galois theory, since the generalization of Liouville's original work develops it.

Alternatively, if you can express your inverse function in terms of the Lambert W function as Nicholas suggests, then you can answer your question via the more specific methods of this paper.