[Math] Why isn’t $\mathbb Z_9 \cong \mathbb Z_3 \times \mathbb Z_3$ by the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups

abstract-algebrafinite-groupsgroup-theory

I was reading the answer to this question: Explicit descriptions of groups of order 45 and the accepted answer says the Sylow $3$-subgroup is either isomorphic to $\mathbb Z_9$ or $\mathbb Z_3 \times \mathbb Z_3$. But now my question is: Why isn't $\mathbb Z_9 \cong \mathbb Z_3 \times \mathbb Z_3$ by the fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups?

The fundamental theorem of finite abelian groups says: Every finite abelian group is the direct product of cyclic groups. (Herstein)

So isn't $\mathbb Z_9 \cong \mathbb Z_3 \times \mathbb Z_3$ by this theorem?

Best Answer

In general, one needs $\mathrm{gcd}(m,n) = 1$ for $\mathbb{Z}_{mn}$ to be isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_m \times \mathbb{Z}_n$.

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