[Math] Why is $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ a field

extension-fieldfield-theory

It seems to me that the hard part of this proof is multiplicative inverses. I know how to prove this by considering the multiplication of two arbitrary elements:

$$(a + b\sqrt{2})(a' + b'\sqrt{2}) = \dots$$

and seeing what values of $\{a', b'\}$ make the result equal to $1 + 0\sqrt{2}$. This is just solving a linear system, and at the end you get:

$$
\begin{aligned}
a' &= -\frac{a}{2b^2 – a^2}\\
b' &= \frac{b}{2b^2 – a^2}\\
\end{aligned}
$$

It so happens that $2b^2 – a^2 \ne 0$ when $a, b \in \mathbb{Q}$, so the inverse always exists. Magic!

But it's just magic. Where did that come from? What is going on here? And can it be generalized to prove that these sorts of things are fields?

  • $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{3}]$
  • $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt[3]{q}] = \{a + b\sqrt{q} + c\sqrt[3]{q}^2\}$
  • $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{q}, \sqrt{p}] = \{a + b\sqrt{q} + c\sqrt{p} + d\sqrt{pq}\}$

(I know that these are examples of "field extensions" from Wikipedia, but we've never talked about them in class. Also I imagine that $p$ and $q$ have to satisfy some conditions — not being square is probably one.)

Best Answer

The reason is much more general: consider multiplication by $a +b\sqrt2$ in the $\mathbf Q$-vector space $\mathbf Q[\sqrt2]$. If is non-zero, it is an injective endomorphism of this space. As we're in finite dimension, an injective endomorphism is surjective. Hence $1$ is attained, i.e. there exists $a'+b'\sqrt2\in\mathbf Q[\sqrt2]$ such that $$(a +b\sqrt2)(a'+b'\sqrt2)=1.$$

The most general result is this:

Let $A\hookrightarrow B$ an injective ring homomorphism. Suppose $A, B$ are integral domains, and $B$ is a finitely generated $A$-module. Then $B$ is a field if and only if $A$ is a field.