[Math] Why is [0,1/2) open in [0, 1]

general-topologymetric-spaces

With the usual metric in $\mathbb{R}$, there is no open interval around $0$ that is completely contained in $[0,1/2)$. However, I have come across the fact that "$[0,1/2)$ is open in $[0,1]$" in a proof I am going through. It seems to directly contradict the definition of openness. A rationale behind this would be appreciated.

Best Answer

You have to think in terms of the subspace topology. Let $\tau$ be the usual topology on $\mathbb R$ and $S=[0,1]$ and $A=[0,1/2)$. Then $A = S\cap U$, where $U$ is for example $(-1/2,1/2)$ (which is an element of $\tau$), so $A$ is open in the subspace topology, which is defined as $\tau_S = \{S\cap U : U\in \tau\}$.

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