[Math] Why does the natural ring homomorphism induce a surjective group homomorphism of units

abstract-algebranumber theory

I'm trying an old problem here: http://www.math.dartmouth.edu/archive/m111s09/public_html/homework-posted/hw1.pdf

Suppose $n\mid m$, and I have a natural ring homomorphism $\varphi\colon \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}\to\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ defined by $\varphi(j)=j\mod{n}$. I can verify that this is a ring homomorphism, but why does it induce a surjective group homomorphism on the unit groups $(\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z})^\times\to(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^\times$?

My question in particular is why is it surjective? I take $k\in(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^\times$. Then there exist integers $s,t$ such that $sn+tk=1$. Since $n\mid m$, I can also write $m=na$. So multiplying through I get $sm+tka=a$. I'm lost here. How can I find a unit in $(\mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z})^\times$ which maps to $k$ to show surjectivity?

Best Answer

First reduce to the case where $n$ and $m$ are both powers of a prime $p$, using the Chinese remainder theorem. After this reduction the result is clear since the $p$-adic valuation of $n$ is lesser than the $p$-adic valuation of $m$ for any prime $p$.

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