[Math] Why does the approximation for exponents $(a+b)^c \approx a^{c-bc} (a+1)^{cb}$ work

approximationexponential functionexponentiation

I was working with some code involving exponents in an environment where exponents can only be calculated if the base of the exponent is an integer. I needed a good fast way to approximate this without causing overflow issues. I accidentally stumbled upon an incredible approximation method and I'm not sure why it works.

Suppose you have an exponent in the form of $x^y$ where $x$ is not an integer and you want to approximate the value using only exponents which have integers for their base-values.

Break $x$ into two parts, an integer part, and an additive. For example $3.7\to 3 + 0.7$.

Therefor, $x\to(a+b)$ where $a$ is an integer part.

The approximation formula is:

$$(a+b)^c \approx a^{c-bc} (a+1)^{cb}$$

Or in my original form:

$$(a+b)^c \approx ((a+b)-b)^{c(1-b)} ((a+b)+(1-b))^{cb}$$

It's remarkably close to the right solution seemingly every time. Granted I've only been able to check about 100 cases, but I'm fascinated.

For example:

$$37.5^{28} ≈ 37^{14}\cdot38^{14}$$

And sure enough, if we divide both parts, the ratio is 1.002 which is very close.

Edit: Thanks to RayDansh pointing out in the comments, this is accurate IFF $a+b$ is big. In fact, the larger $a$ gets the more accurate this approximation seems to get.

Can anyone shed some light as to why this approximation method I've stumbled upon works?

Best Answer

Write your approximation $$a^{c-bc} \cdot (a+1)^{cb}=a^c\left(1+\frac 1a\right)^{bc}$$ and your approximation is $$\left(1+\frac 1a\right)^{b}\approx 1+\frac ba$$ Which is the first two terms of the binomial expansion. It will be reasonably accurate when $\frac ba \ll 1$ The next term is $\frac {b(b-1)}{2a^2}$

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