[Math] Why does partial differentiation of a pair of straight lines give the point of intersection of those straight lines

analytic geometryconic sections

It is generally told to us students to mug up this method for find the point of intersection of the pair of straight lines given by:
$$ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0$$
Suppose $\Phi = ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 + 2gx + 2fy + c$, then by partially differentiating $\Phi$ with respect to $x$ and again with respect to $y$ gives the two equations:
$$ \dfrac{\partial\Phi}{\partial x} = 2(ax + hy + g) \\[2ex]
\dfrac{\partial\Phi}{\partial y} = 2(hx + by + f)$$
Setting them both equal to zero and solving them gives the point of intersection of the two lines represented by the equation $\Phi = 0$. So why does this happen? Is there an explanation for it? Or atleast an intuitive explanation? (Please include the intuitive explanation also! It would help heaps.) I do not know a lot of geometry, this is the first time I am seeing this equation or the chapter, so if possible, please give the complete explanation.

That's a lot of asking from my side, so thank you very much if you decide to answer!

Best Answer

Here's a graphical, hand-wavy, interpretation:

$\Phi(x,y)=0$ is the implicit function of a certain graph in the $(x,y)$ plane. We know that: $$\frac{dy}{dx}=-\frac{\dfrac{\partial \Phi}{\partial x}}{\dfrac{\partial \Phi}{\partial y}}$$

If $\dfrac{\partial \Phi}{\partial x}=0$ and $\dfrac{\partial \Phi}{\partial y}=0$ then $dy/dx$ is indeterminate, and the only place that's true for two lines is their intersection.