Real Analysis – Why an Open Interval Does Not Have Measure Zero

general-topologymeasure-theoryreal-analysis

I am currently working on a proof that requires me to show that an open ball $B_{\epsilon}(x)$ has nonzero measure. I currently have the following proof in my book:

"The closed interval $[a,b]$ is not of measure zero."

Hence, if I take the contrapositive, does it follow that "if an interval doesn't have measure zero, the interval is open"? Is there a way for me to prove that the open interval on the line $\mathbb{R}$ is of measure not zero? Thanks!

Best Answer

Your contrapositive seems to be wrong in two ways. An interval not being closed $[a,b]$ does not mean it is open, and the negation of "not of measure zero" should be "of measure zero". In any case the statement is missing the assumption $a<b$, at least for the Lebesgue measure.