[Math] Why do we take the dot product with the normal vector when we do Stokes’ Theorem

multivariable-calculus

So this part I'm struggling with on Stokes' Theorem:

$$\iint_S ~(\text{curl}~\vec{F} \cdot \hat{n})~ dS$$

I don't really understand why we would want to dot it with the unit normal vector at that point. This is going to tell us how much of the curl is in the normal direction but why would we want this surely we only care about how much the curl is actually on the surface as opposed to normal to the surface it seems to me like this is actually the opposite of what we want. Very counter intuitive to me. I'm guessing I am misinterpreting something here so if someone would explain that would be fantastic.

Also in the next line it says

$$\iint_S ~(\text{curl}~\vec{F} \cdot \hat{n})~ dS=\iint_S ~\text{curl}~\vec{F} \cdot d\vec{S}$$

so is this just a notation to say that $$\hat{n}\cdot~ dS= d\vec{S}$$

why is this so it it just purely for convenience or is there some reason to write it like this, I struggle to see why some differential of the surface would be a vector? To me it's just a little chunk of the surface area.

I really need this clarified and cleared up thanks.

Best Answer

To state Stokes' theorem, Assume that a normal to the surface has been chosen at each point in a "smooth" way. The boundary must be traversed in a way consistent with the choice of normal. Imagine walking along the surface near the boundary with your arms out so that your body points in the direction of the chosen normal. You should traverse the boundary in such a way that your right arm points "outside" the surface.