[Math] Why can’t AND and NOT be represented with only IMPLICATION

boolean-algebralogic

Can someone please explain why I can't use only IMPLICATION to represent AND and NOT with proof as well?

I know that I can represent OR simply by using IMPLICATION. Was thinking if I could find representation of NOT, then I can easily find representation of AND.

From my understanding, we can represent IMPLICATION by using OR and NOT set. Which is a functionally complete. Does this mean that Implication is also functionally complete?

Best Answer

One way of approaching a formal proof of this, is by induction, I'll do negation for you, and you can see if you can modify it to do conjunction.

Notice that if you have an expression $\phi$ which is equivalent to $\neg A$, which has any occurrences of any propositional variables other than $A$, then, you can just replace them with $A$. Hence, we only need to consider sentences in $A$ and $\rightarrow$.

Claim: Any sentence in $A$ and $\rightarrow$ evaluates to true, when $A$ is true.

Proof: By induction on the length of the sentence. The base case is the sentence $A$, and clearly this is true with $A$ is true. In the induction step the expression is of the form $\phi \rightarrow \psi$, for some sentences $\phi$ and $\psi$ in only $A$ and $\rightarrow$. Also $\phi$ and $\psi$ are shorter, so, we can apply the induction hypothesis. In particular when $A$ is true $\phi$ and $\psi$ are both true. But then, by the semantics for $\rightarrow$, when $A$ is true $\phi\rightarrow \psi$ is true too.

Q.E.D.

So, any expression we can make preserves truth, and so, can't be equivalent to negation.