Let us think about the empty function $f:\emptyset\rightarrow X$ ($X$ is an arbitrary set.) .
My idea is $f$ is always injective. Iff $X=\emptyset$, $f$ is surjective (so bijective).
(Reasoning)
Definition of injective is :$x\neq x'\rightarrow f(x)\neq f(x')$. The empty set has no element, so $x\neq x'\rightarrow f(x)\neq f(x')$ is always true.
Definition of surjective is : $\forall y\in Y$, there exists $x\in X$ such that $f(x)=y$.
Iff Y is the empty set,there is no element of $Y$, so $\forall y\in Y$, there exists $x\in X$ such that $f(x)=y$ is true.
Best Answer
You are correct. Since $\forall x, y \in \emptyset f(x) = f(y) \Longrightarrow x = y$ is vacuously true, $f$ is always injective.
Now, let's check surjectivity (namely $\forall x \in X\ \exists y \in \emptyset, f(y) = x$). $f$ is: