[Math] When does a finite ring become a finite field

abstract-algebrafinite-ringsring-theory

I'm relatively new to ring theory so this is probably a simple question.

Its easy to see that a finite ring that is commutative and has no-zero divisors (i.e. an integral domain) must have multiplicative inverses.

I am wondering if we can rearrange these properties and always get implication or produce finite rings with only 2 of the above properties.

Explicitly my questions are:

1) Does a finite ring that is commutative with multiplicative inverses always have no-zero divisors?
(EDIT: this one is pretty easy too, let $xy=0$ and assume $x\neq 0$. then $x^{-1}xy=x^{-1}0$. Hence, $y=0$ as desired.)

2) Is a finite ring that has multiplicative inverses and no zero divisors always commutative?

If these are actually simple exercises, I'd just like a hint to get started with the proof or any counterexamples.

Thanks 🙂

Best Answer

HINT 1) If $\;\rm R\;$ is finite then $\;\rm x\to r\:x\;$ is onto iff 1-1, so $\;\rm R\;$ is a field iff $\;\rm R\;$ is a domain.

2) is Wedderburn's little theorem.