[Math] When can one conclude that a sequence of uniformly bounded equicontinuous functions converges uniformly

convergence-divergencederivativesreal-analysissequences-and-seriesuniform-convergence

Let $~f_{n}: [0,1] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a sequence of smooth functions
that are uniformly bounded and equicontinuous. By Arzela Ascoli theorem we
know that a subsequence $\{ f_{n_k} \} $ converges uniformly.

Is there is any additional condition under which one can say that the sequence
$\{ f_{n} \} $ converges uniformly? In my case, I have sequence of
functions that are uniformly bounded and the derivatives $f_{n}^{\prime}$
are also uniformly bounded. By fundamnetal theorem of calculus this
implies the sequence is equicontinuous. Under what additional hypothesis
can one conclude this sequence converges uniformly?

For example is this a sufficient criteria:
$$ f_{n+1}(x) \geq f_{n}(x) \qquad \forall ~~x, ~~n $$
?

Best Answer

A condition on the derivatives cannot guarantee the whole series (take $f_n(x):=(-1)^n$).

However, in the case where $(f_n(x),n\geqslant 1)$ is non-increasing for all $x$, and the sequence is uniformly bounded, this is true (and called Dini's theorem).