[Math] Values of the Riemann Zeta function and the Ramanujan Summation – How strong is the connection

analytic-number-theorydivergent-seriesregularizationriemann-zeta

The Ramanujan Summation of some infinite sums is consistent with a couple of sets of values of the Riemann zeta function. We have, for instance, $$\zeta(-2n)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n^{2k} = 0 (\mathfrak{R}) $$ (for non-negative integer $k$) and $$\zeta(-(2n+1))=-\frac{B_{2k}}{2k} (\mathfrak{R})$$ (again, $k \in \mathbb{N} $). Here, $B_k$ is the $k$'th Bernoulli number. However, it does not hold when, for example, $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n}=\gamma (\mathfrak{R})$$ (here $\gamma$ denotes the Euler-Mascheroni Constant) as it is not equal to $$\zeta(1)=\infty$$.

Question: Are the first two examples I stated the only instances in which the Ramanujan summation of some infinite series coincides with the values of the Riemann zeta function?

Best Answer

Ramanujan summation arises out of Euler-Maclaurin summation formula. Ramanujan summation is just (C, 1) summation. (See Cesàro summation)

You can find out easily from Euler-Maclaurin that

$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k}$$

is not (C, 1) summable.

Follow the method of Ramanujan below (which you can easily follow):

Using Euler-Summation we have

\begin{align*} \zeta(s) & = \frac{1}{s-1}+\frac{1}{2}+\sum_{r=2}^{q}\frac{B_r}{r!}(s)(s+1)\cdots(s+r-2) \\ & \phantom{=} -\frac{(s)(s+1)\cdots(s+q-1)}{q!}\int_{1}^{\infty}B_{q}(x-[x])x^{-s-q} ~dx \end{align*}

$\zeta(s)$ is the Riemann zeta function (Note $s=1$ is pole) . Note that right side has values even for $Re(s)<1$.

For example, putting $s=0$ we get $$\zeta(0)=-\frac{1}{2}.$$

If we put $s=-n$ (n being a positive integer) and $q=n+1$, we see the remainder vanishes and have

$$(n+1)\zeta(-n)=-1+\frac{n+1}{2}+\sum_{r=2}^{n+1}\frac{B_r(-1)^{r-1}}{r!}\binom{n+1}{r}$$

which after

$$\sum_{j=0}^{r}\binom{r+1}{j}B_j=0$$

gives

$$\zeta(-n)=-\frac{B_{n+1}}{n+1}.$$

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