[Math] Understanding Zorn’s lemma.

axiom-of-choiceset-theory

A lot of authors assume Zorn's lemma. I am told it is not an obvious mathematical fact, but I am having problems understanding why that is.

Zorn's lemma states that if every chain in a partially ordered set $P$ has an upper bound in $P$, then it has a maximal element.

Both the maximal element and the upper bound of every chain have to belong to $P$.

Say any one chain of $P$ has an upper bound in $P$. Won't that be the maximal element by default. Is there some fine difference between maximal element and upper bound which I am unable to grasp?

Thanks in advance!

Best Answer

As others have pointed out, your statement of Zorn's lemma is ambiguous, and the one reasonable interpretation in English is not what is wanted (and in fact makes the statement false). This might be the source of your confusion. However, to address your questions at face value:

A maximal element of $P$ is an element such that no other is greater than it. That is, $x$ is maximal $p\not\geq x$ for any $p\in P$. Of course, because $P$ is not necessarily totally ordered, this is weaker than the notion of a maximum element, which demands that every other element is less than it.

Upper bounds require a bit more subtlety to define: Given a partially ordered set $P$ and a subset $S\subseteq P$, we say that $x$ is an upper bound of $S$ if every element of $S$ is less than $x$. Therefore, an upper bound is more similar to a maximum element than a maximal element. But it is importantly different because the upper bound does not need to belong to $S$ itself, just to $P$.

(A classic example for when this distinction is important is that open sets on the real line never have maximum elements, but they could have upper bounds.)

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