Consider two triangles $\triangle abc$ and $\triangle def$ such that $ab=de$ and $ac=df$.Also area of $\triangle abc$ is equal to area of $\triangle def$.Now draw $cm$ perpendicular to $ab$ and $fn$ perpendicular to $de$.$ab$ and $de$ are equal and area of triangles is also equal so $cm$ should be equal to $fn$.Now $\triangle amc$ and$\triangle dnf$ are congruent by right angle triangle congruence(since hypoteneous $ac$ and $df$ are equal).therefore $\angle bac$ is equal to $\angle edf$.Now in $\triangle abc$ and $\triangle def$ by SAS both $\triangle abc$ and $\triangle def$ are congruent so $bc=ef$.I don't know where i am wrong.
edit:Please read my proof and point out what's wrong
Best Answer
The answer is no. See the following counter-example. The two triangles have the same altitude, and equal bases (and hence equal in area) but the third sides (i.e. BC, EF) are different.
This fact can also be verified by applying the formula:- area of a triangle = 0.5 ab sin C.