[Math] Two holes in the graph when dividing polynomials

calculusgraphing-functionspolynomials

Sorry if this seems like a dumb question, or if it has been answered already. I did a quick search and didn't turn up anything, so here goes.

I'm teaching a high school algebra class, and the book I'm doing says the students need to note restrictions on both the numerator and denominator when dividing two polynomials. For example:

$$\frac{ \left(\frac{x^2-121}{x^2-4} \right)}{ \left(\frac{x+2}{x-11} \right)}$$

There is obviously going to be an asymptote at $x = -2$, but the book also suggests there should be a hole in the graph at $x = 11$.

However, graphing the function on a graphing calculator (desmos, in this case), shows the function to be equal to $0$ when $x = 11$. Changing the numerator of the dividend to something like $(x² – 133)$ doesn't alter the equation equaling zero at $x = 11$ either.

Wouldn't $x = 11$ imply that $(x² – 133)/(x² – 4) ÷ (x+2)/(x-11)$ is actually $(x² – 133)/(x² – 4) ÷ 1/0$, or $(x² – 133)/(x² – 4) ÷ ∞$?

Note: the TI-83 also gives me an ERROR message for this function at $x = 11$, so perhaps it is just desmos?

Edit: Sorry! I forgot to include another division sign when discussing this problem.

Best Answer

I feel the need to be pedantic here, and want to make a distinction between the expression $$\frac{(x^2-121)/(x^2-4)}{(x+2)/(x-11)}$$ and the rational function it represents.

The expression is undefined at $x=11$, since we cannot evaluate $(x+2)/(x-11)$ when $x=11$.

However the rational function it represents can also be written as $$\frac{(x^2-121)(x-11)}{(x+2)(x^2-4)},$$ so the rational function is defined at $x=11$, because it can be written as a fraction of polynomials for which $11$ is not a root of the polynomial in the denominator.

There are several good reasons to make this distinction, though I'm not sure it's usually made at a high school level, but I'll cite Wikipedia as a source to show that this distinction is in fact made.

An aside on why this distinction is made

The short version is that algebraically, we can think of rational functions as fractions of polynomials. Thus if two fractions are equal, then the functions they define should also be equal.

I.e., because these fractions of polynomials are equal, $$\frac{1}{x-2} = \frac{x+2}{x^2-4}$$ they should represent the same function.

This is related to the idea that polynomials aren't functions. See this question for more on that topic.

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