[Math] Totally ordered abelian group

commutative-algebraorder-theory

Let $\Gamma$ be a totally ordered abelian group (written additively), and let $K$ be a field. A valuation of $K$ with values in $\Gamma$ is a mapping $v:K^* \to \Gamma$ such that

  • $1)$ $v(xy)=v(x)+v(y)$

  • $2)$ $v(x+y) \ge \min (v(x),v(y))$,
    for all $x,y \in K^*$.

Show that the set $A=\{x\in K^*:v(x) \ge 0\} \cup \{0\}$ is a valuation ring of $K$.

I want to show that $-1 \in A$. From $v(1)=v(1)+v(1)$, $v(1)=0$ and $v(1)=v(-1)+v(-1)$ so that $2v(-1)=0$. Is it possible to conclude that $v(-1)=0$?

In general for any totally ordered abelian group, does $2x=0$ imply $x=0$?

Best Answer

Yes. If $x$ is positive then so is $nx$ for any $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ and if $x$ is negative then $-x$ is positive and $nx = 0$ iff $n(-x) = 0$.

In other words, a totally ordered abelian group is necessarily torsionfree. More interestingly, the converse also holds: any torsionfree abelian group can be totally ordered (in at least one way). See Section 17.2 of these notes for the proof.

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