Measure Theory – Measure of Numbers in [0,1] Without Digit 5

lebesgue-measuremeasure-theory

I just came across an exercise that asks to show that set of numbers in $[0,1]$ which possess decimal expansion not containing the digit $5$ has measure zero.

How do I approach this?

I tried thinking of relating this to Cantor set but, I see that numbers whose decimal expansion contains the digit $5$ are both contained in the Cantor set as well in its complement too, I thought if it was in the Cantor set and since measure of Cantor set is zero, so it's measure will be zero but this does not happen.

In fact how is this set measurable?

Any idea?

Best Answer

See, study the complement of the set. That is, look at integers which contain $5$ in their decimal expansion. Caveat : note that $0.6 = 0.5\overline{9}$ also counts as a decimal which is expressed with a $5$ as one of the digits, so belongs in the set. In particular, any terminating decimal which terminates with $6$ can be considered to belong to the set.

The first such category we can think of is: Those that have $5$ as the first digit following the decimal point. This is the set of numbers $[0.5,0.6]$. This has measure $0.1$, so the left over measure is $0.9$.

Now, from the remaining set, remove the set of all numbers with second digit $5$. This consists of $[0.05,0.06[, [0.15,0.16] \ldots [0.95,0.96]$ without $[0.55,0.56]$, since that was already removed earlier. Now, each of these has measure $0.01$, so we have removed $0.09$ more from the system. Hence, the left over is $0.81$.

By induction, prove the following : at the $n$th step, the set left over has measure $\frac{9^n}{10^n}$. Now, as $n \to \infty$, we see that the given set has measure zero (I leave you to rigorously show this, you can use the Borel-Cantelli lemma). This also incorporates the fact that the given set is measurable, since it's measure is computable(and is $0$).