Given a circle $C(x,y) \equiv x^2 + y^2 + 2gx+2fy+c=0$ and a point $P = (x_1,y_1)$ outside the circle, the equation of the pair of straight lines that are tangent to the circle and pass through $P$ is given by $$C(x_1,y_1)C(x,y) = T(x,y)^2,$$
where $T(x,y)$ is the equation of the chord of contact of the tangents drawn from point $P$.
I do not know a derivation using Plucker's $\mu$. Please help, this question is driving me nuts. I am unable to understand the significance of squaring the equation of a line.
Best Answer
A more general proof:
Let Q and R be the points at which lines through $P=(x_1,y_1)$ touch a non degenerate conic $S(x,y) \equiv Ax^2+2Bxy+Cy^2+2Dx+2Ey+F=0$. In other words, lines PR and PQ are the tangents to this conic at points Q and R, and RQ is the chord of contact.
Let $PR(x,y)=0$, $PQ(x,y)=0$, $RQ(x,y)=0$ be the equation of these lines.
As RQ is polar of P in relation to this conic,
$$RQ(x,y)\equiv (Ax+By+D)x_1+(Bx+Cy+E)y_1+(Dx+Ey+F)=0$$
On the other hand, the equation $\lambda(PR(x,y).PQ(x,y))+\mu(RQ(x,y))^2=0$ represents all conics which are touched by lines PR and PQ at points R and Q. Therefore, for especific values of $\lambda$ and $\mu $ (none of which can be equal to zero, because otherwise S would be a degenerate conic):
$$S(x,y)\equiv \lambda(PR(x,y).PQ(x,y))+\mu(RQ(x,y))^2=0$$
Then, $$S(x_1,y_1)=\lambda(PR(x_1,y_1).PQ(x_1,y_1))+\mu(RQ(x_1,y_1))^2,$$ $$S(x_1,y_1)=\mu(RQ(x_1,y_1))^2$$
Besides that,
$$RQ(x_1,y_1)=(Ax_1+By_1+D)x_1+(Bx_1+Cy_1+E)y_1+(Dx_1+Ey_1+F),$$ $$RQ(x_1,y_1)=S(x_1,y_1)$$
Thus
$$S(x_1,y_1)=\mu(S(x_1,y_1))^2,$$ $$\mu=\frac {1}{S(x_1,y_1)}$$
Therefore
$$S(x_1,y_1).S(x,y)\equiv S(x_1,y_1)\lambda(PR(x,y).PQ(x,y))+(RQ(x,y))^2,$$ $$S(x_1,y_1)\lambda(PR(x,y).PQ(x,y))\equiv S(x_1,y_1).S(x,y)-(RQ(x,y))^2$$
Finally, equating left and right members of this identity to zero, we get that the equation of tangents PR and PQ to conic S can be represented by equation
$$S(x_1,y_1).S(x,y)-(RQ(x,y))^2=0$$