[Math] Tail of binomial Distribution (Confused)

probability distributions

If $X$ is the number of successes in a Binomial Distribution

Then,
$P(X \leq K) = \dbinom{n}{k} (1-p)^{(n-k)}$

However, when I apply it to the case where
$p=0.003$
$n=1000$
$k=1$

I get $P= 50.43$!!!

What am I missing??

Best Answer

It should be $P(X = k) = \dbinom{n}{k} p^k(1-p)^{n-k}$ and hence $P(X \leq k) = \sum_{r=0}^k\dbinom{n}{r} p^r(1-p)^{n-r}$.