My attempt
Let $a, b \in X$ are two distinct points . we will show that there exist two open sets $G_1$ and $G_2$ such that $a \in G_1$ and $b \in G_2$ and $G_1 \cap G_2 = \phi$ or there exists $n \in \mathbb N$ such that $S_{1/n}(a) \cap S_{1/n}(b) = \phi$.
Let if possible for each $n \in \mathbb N$ $S_{1/n}(a) \cap S_{1/n}(b) \neq \phi$ , then there exist $x_n \in S_{1/n}(a) \cap S_{1/n}(b)$ for each $n \in \mathbb N$ . So there exist a sequence $\{x_n \} \in X$ suct that converges to two distinct point $a$ and $b$, which is a contradiction.
I would be thankful , if someone check my Solution
Best Answer
The main problem with your proof is that you are trying to prove something that is false. The following are standard, though not very common, definitions:
Now, it isn't too hard to show that the implications T2 ⇒ KC ⇒ US ⇒ T1 hold. However none of the arrows reverse.
The example provided by Batominovski in a comment to the question
is actually an example of a KC-space which is not Hausdorff. (It is a KC-space because the only compact subsets are finite, which are closed by T1-ness.)
For an example of a US-space which is not a KC-space, consider the space $X = [0,1] \cup \{ \infty \}$ where $[0,1]$ is an open subspace (with the usual topology), and the open neighborhoods of $\infty$ are of the form $\{ \infty \} \cup U$ where $U$ is a dense open subset of $[0,1]$.
This is a US-space essentially because a sequence only converges to $\infty$ if eventually all its points are $\infty$ (and $[0,1]$ is an open set not containing $\infty$).
In more detail, if $(x_n)_n$ is a sequence in $[0,1]$ then by the compactness of $[0,1]$ some subsequence $(x_{n_k})_k$ must converge to a point $x \in [0,1]$. Now it isn't hard to show that $F := \{ x_{n_k} : k \geq 1 \} \cup \{ x \}$ is a closed nowhere dense subset of $[0,1]$, and so $U := \{ \infty \} \cup ( [0,1] \setminus F)$ is an open neighborhood of $\infty$. But then $U$ cannot contain a tail of the sequence $(x_n)_n$, meaning the sequence cannot converge to $\infty$.
The major false move in your attempted proof is the implicit assumption of first-countability, where you are looking at the neighborhoods $S_{1/n} (a)$ and $S_{1/n}(b)$ ($n \in \mathbb N$) for $a,b$, respectively.
But actually, your proof basically gives a correct argument that every first-countable US-space is Hausdorff: