How is it proved that if $$A \subset B\ \text{with}\ B\ \text{countable} $$ then $A$ is either countable, finite, or empty? I think the proof involves a $1-1$ correspondence between $\mathbb{N}$ and $A$ but other than that I do not know how to proceed.
EDIT: I have checked the solution and it advises me to proceed as follows. " As a start to a definition of $$g: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow A$$ set $$g(1)=f(n_1) $$ Then show how to inductively continue this process to produce a $1-1$ function $g$ from $\mathbb{N}$ onto $A$."
So the proof according to my book involves induction.
Best Answer
Any subset of a countable set is countable.
Take $A\subset B$ where $B$ is countable. Then $|A|\leq|B|$ since $A\subset B$. By definition, $|A|\leq|B|$ if there is a one-to-one function from $A$ into $B$. We also see that $|B|\leq\aleph_0$ since $B$ is countable. Thus, $|A|\leq\aleph_0$.