Ordinary Differential Equations – Stability of Linear Time-Varying Systems

control theorydynamical systemslinear-controlordinary differential equationsstability-in-odes

Consider the following linear time-varying (LTV) system

$$\dot{x} = A(t)x$$

If $A(t)$ satisfies

$$\mbox{eig} \left( A(t)+A(t)^{T} \right) < 0$$

then is it sufficient to conclude that the time-varying system is stable?

I am looking for references where this sufficiency condition is explained.

Best Answer

It is nice to see such an interesting discussion and let me please summarize it. The answer to your question is "Yes" if you ask for stability in the Lyapunov sense, and "No" if you ask for asymptotic convergence. In other words, the condition $\operatorname{eig}\left(A(t)+A^\top(t)\right)<0$ is sufficient to say that $x(t)$ is bounded, and not sufficient to say that $x(t)\to 0$. A nice example was given by @Dmitry. Indeed, for $\dot{x}(t)=-e^{-t}x(t)$ and $x(0)=1$ we have $x(t)=e^{-1+e^{-t}}$ and $x(t)\to e^{-1}\ne 0$. At the same time, we have the Lyapunov function analysis showing (falsely) that the system converges. How is it possible?

Ok, let us check what happens with the Lyapunov function. Define $V(x):=x^\top x$. Then, as shown above, we have $\dot{V}(x,t) = x^\top(t)\left(A(t)+A^\top(t)\right)x(t) \le 0$. So we conclude that $\dot{V}(x,t)<0$ for $x\ne 0$. Well, from this inequality we know for sure that $V(x)$ is bounded and does not increase, so we immediately obtain that $x(t)$ is also bounded. With some standard arguments, we can even show that the equilibrium $x=0$ is Lyapunov stable; however, it does not imply convergence!

Now the tricky part. Is the condition $\dot{V}(x,t)<0$ sufficient to show that $V(x)\to 0$ and $x\to 0$? Yes for autonomous systems and not for non-autonomous systems! When we have $\dot{x}=f(x)$ and $\dot{V}(x,t)=\dot{V}(x)<0$, then this inequality is uniform in time, and we indeed conclude that $V(x)\to 0$. When we have $\dot{x}=f(x,t)$, then the time derivative of $V(x)$ is a function of time as well and the inequality $\dot{V}(x,t)<0$ is not necessary uniform in time. This is exactly what happens with the example above. If we take $V(x):=\frac{1}{2}x^2$, or $$V(t)= \frac{1}{2}\exp\left(-2+2e^{-t}\right),$$ then $\dot{V}(x,t) = -e^{-t}x^2$, or $$\dot{V}(t) = -e^{-t}\exp\left(-2+2e^{-t}\right).$$ We see that the negative definiteness of $\dot{V}(x,t)$ is not uniform in $t$, and the Lyapunov's second method for autonomous systems cannot be applied. Indeed, $\dot{V}(t)\to 0$ and $V(t)$ converges to a nonzero constant.

Ok, so what do we need to claim the convergence? We need the uniformity. The standard way is to show that there exists a continuous positive definite function $W(x)$, such that $\dot{V}(x,t)\le -W(x)$ for all $t$. Then the asymptotic convergence to the origin follows. For linear time-varying system the sufficient for asymptotic (exponential) convergence condition is that there exists a constant $\alpha>0$ such that $$\operatorname{eig}\left(A(t)+A^\top(t)+\alpha I\right)\le0,$$ or, equvalently, $A(t)+A^\top(t)\le -\alpha I$, where $I$ is the identity matrix. Then we have $$\dot{V}(x,t) = x^\top(t)\left(A(t)+A^\top(t)\right)x(t) \le -\alpha x^\top x = -W(x).$$

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