[Math] Showing that a cyclic automorphism group makes a finite group abelian

abelian-groupsautomorphism-groupcyclic-groupsgroup-theory

From a bank of previous masters exams:

Let $G$ be a finite group such that its automorphism group $\operatorname{Aut}(G)$ is cyclic. Prove that $G$ is abelian.

Here's what I was thinking. Let $\phi:G \to G$ be the generator of $\operatorname{Aut}(G)$, with order $n$. Assume that $G$ is not abelian. Then there is a nontrivial inner automorphism $\psi_g(x) = g^{-1}xg$. Since $\phi$ generates all automorphisms, then $\psi_g = \phi^k$ for some $k$. This also implies that $\psi_g^n(x) = g^{-n}xg^n$ is the identity map.

After that, no luck. Any ideas?

Best Answer

If the automorphism group is cyclic, then the Inner automorphism group is cyclic. But the inner automorphism group is isomorphic to $G/Z(G)$, and if $G/Z(G)$ is cyclic, then it is trivial. Therefore, $G=Z(G)$ so $G$ is abelian. (The argument does not require $G$ to be finite, by the by.)

For the latter:

Prop. If $H\subseteq Z(G)$ and $G/H$ is cyclic, then $G$ is abelian.

Suppose $G/H$ is cyclic, with $H\subseteq Z(G)$. Let $g\in G$ be such that $gH$ generates $G/H$. Then every $x\in G$ can be written as $x=g^kh$ for some integer $k$ and some $h\in H$. Given $x,y\in G$, we have $x=g^kh$ and $y=g^{\ell}h'$, so $$\begin{align*} xy &= (g^kh)(g^{\ell}h')\\ &= g^kg^{\ell}hh' &\quad&\text{since }h\in Z(G)\\ &= g^{\ell}g^kh'h\\ &= g^{\ell}h'g^kh &&\text{since }h'\in Z(G)\\ &= (g^{\ell}h')(g^kh)\\ &= yx, \end{align*}$$ hence $G$ is abelian. QED

For more on what groups can occur as central quotients, see this previous question.

Added. Since you mention you did not know that $\mathrm{Inn}(G)\cong G/Z(G)$, let's do that too:

Define a map $G\to \mathrm{Aut}(G)$ by mapping $g\mapsto \varphi_g$, where $\varphi_g$ is "conjugation by $g$". That is, for all $x\in G$, $\varphi_g(x) = gxg^{-1}$.

This map is a group homomorphism: if $g,h\in G$, then we want to show that $\varphi_{gh} = \varphi_g\circ\varphi_h$. To that end, let $x\in G$ be any element, and we show that $\varphi_{gh}(x) = \varphi_g(\varphi_h(x))$. $$\varphi_{gh}(x) = (gh)x(gh)^{-1} = ghxh^{-1}g^{-1}= g(hxh^{-1})g^{-1} = \varphi_g(hxh^{-1}) = \varphi_g(\varphi_h(x)).$$

Therefore, the map $g\mapsto\varphi_g$ is a homomorphism from $G$ onto $\mathrm{Inn}(G)$. By the Isomorphism Theorem, $\mathrm{Inn}(G)$ is isomorphic to $G/N$, where $N$ is the kernel of this homomorphism.

What is $N$? $g\in N$ if and only if $\varphi_g$ is the identity element of $\mathrm{Aut}(G)$, which is the identity; that is, if and only if $\varphi_g(x)=x$ for all $x\in G$. But $\varphi_g(x)=x$ if and only if $gxg^{-1}=x$, if and only if $gx = xg$. So $\varphi_g(x) = x$ if and only if $g$ commutes with $x$. Thus, $\varphi_g(x)=x$ for all $x$ if and only if $g$ commutes with all $x$, if and only if $g\in Z(G)$. Thus, $N=Z(G)$, so $\mathrm{Inn}(G)\cong G/Z(G)$, as claimed.

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