[Math] Show that the only homomorphism from $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ to $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{3}]$ is trivial one.

abstract-algebraring-theory

In other words, if $f$ is a ring homomorphism from $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ to $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{3}]$, then $f(r) = 0$ for all $r \in \mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$…

I was trying to see if the assumed $f$ contradicts any one of axioms of ring homomorphisms, but didn’t see one. I was thinking using the fact that $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{3}]$ are fields so the only ideals are trivial ideals. Since $\ker(\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}])$ is also an ideal, I want to show that this $\ker(\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}])$ is not the zero ideal. Then I didn’t go too far because I have no other information about the structure of these two fields. Also, I was thinking about representing any non-zero $r$ in $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ and to map it and somehow hopefully use the no zero-divisor property of Integral Domain to show that $r$ is mapped to $0$…But I’m not sure if the specific $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{2}]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[\sqrt{3}]$ can give us stronger hypothesis…

Best Answer

Hint: If $\phi$ is a homomorphism then $\phi(\sqrt 2)^2=\phi(2)$. If $\phi$ is non-trivial then $\phi(2)=2$...

Oops. It's been pointed we need to show that $\phi(1)=1$ if $\phi$ is nontrivial. In any case, if $x=\phi(1)$ then $x^2=x$; since there are no zero divisors in $\Bbb Q[\sqrt3]$ this shows that $\phi(1)$ is $0$ or $1$, and if $\phi(1)=0$ then $\phi$ is trivial.

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