[Math] Russell’s paradox and axiom of separation

axiomsparadoxesset-theory

I don't quite understand how the axiom of separation resolves Russell's paradox in an entirely satisfactory way (without relying on other axioms).

I see that it removes the immediate contradiction that is produced by unrestricted comprehension, but it seems that we still need further axioms to guarantee that a well-formed set $S$ will never contain the set of all given elements (of $S$) which do not contain themselves.

Is that correct?

Best Answer

The guarantee that such a set can't exist is already given by the argument of Russell's paradox: its existence leads to a contradiction therefore it can't exist.

The problem with unrestricted comprehension was that it guaranteed the set does exist, which causes a problem because of the conflicting guarantees.

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