Given a probability measure space $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, P)$, if a random variable X and a sub $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{A}$ are independent, I was wondering why:
- $$E (X|\mathcal{A}) = (EX)I_Ω;$$
- $$E(I_A \times X) = P (A)EX, \,
\forall A \in \mathcal{A}.$$
Thanks and regards!
Best Answer
Hint for 1.: Recall the definition of the random variable $E(X|\mathcal{A})$. Hint for 2.: Recall the definition of $X$ being independent from $\mathcal{A}$. (And add the condition that $X$ is integrable.)