[Math] Pull Back of Borel regular measures

measure-theory

Let $ X, Y $ be two metric spaces and let $ f: X \rightarrow Y $ be a continuous map. Let $ \mu $ be a Borel regular measure on X ( every Borel set of $ X $ is $ \mu $-measurable and for every $ E \subset X $ there exists a Borel set $ B \subset X $ such that $ E \subset B $ and $ \mu(E)=\mu(B) $ ). Let $ \eta $ be the measure on $ Y $ defined as

$$ \eta(A)=\mu(f^{-1}(A)) $$

It is easy to see that $ \eta $ is a Borel measure (i.e. every Borel set of $ Y $ is $ \eta $-measurable). Actually I think that $ \eta $ is a Borel regular measure on $ Y $ but I' m not able to prove it. Is it true? If it is true, how can I prove it?

Thanks

Best Answer

It needn't be regular. Consider $f:\mathbb{R}\to S^1$ defined $$f(t) = (\cos t,\sin t),$$ and $\mu$ the Lebesgue measure. Then for every $x\in S^1$ and an open set $x\in U\subset S^1$, $\eta(x)=0$, but $\eta(U)=\infty$.

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