[Math] Proving that the series $\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} 2^n \sin (\frac{1}{3^nx})$ does not converge uniformly on $(0,\infty)$

proof-explanationreal-analysissequences-and-seriesuniform-convergence

Show that the series $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} 2^n \sin (\frac{1}{3^nx})$$ does
not converge uniformly on $(0,\infty)$

Solution:
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My question is what is the technique being used in the solution to show that the series does not converge uniformly? Can anyone explain it with reference to the relevant definition/theorem?


What I don't understand is that how showing that $$\sum_{n=N}^{\infty} 2^n \sin (\frac{1}{3^nx})$$ cannot be made arbitrarily small proves the result. This answer seems more like its showing that the sequence of partial sums is unbounded. I need clarification.

Best Answer

what is the technique being used in the solution to show that the series does not converge uniformly

Go back to the definition. I will explain it abstractly here.

Consider a sequence of functions $f_n:E\to{\bf R}$, where $E$ is some subset of ${\bf R}$. There are two basic modes of convergence of the sequence $\{f_n\}$.

  • If for each $x\in E$, $f_n(x)\to f(x)$ as $n\to\infty$, we say that $f_n$ converges to $f$ pointwise. In terms of the $\epsilon$-$N$ language, $$ \forall x\in E\ \forall \epsilon>0\ \exists N\in{\bf N}\ \forall n\geq N\ \ |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon\tag{1} $$
  • We say $f_n$ converges to $f$ uniformly, if the following is true: $$ \forall \epsilon>0\ \exists N\in{\bf N}\ \forall n\geq N\ \forall x\in E\ \ |f_n(x)-f(x)|<\epsilon\tag{2} $$

Note that (2) is a stronger condition than (1).

Remember that a series is nothing but the limit of a partial sum. Suppose $g_n:(0,\infty)\to{\bf R}$, then $\sum_{n=0}^\infty g_n(x)$ converges uniformly means, the sequence of functions $f_k$, defined with $$ f_k(x):=\sum_{n=0}^k g_n(x), $$ converges uniformly to some function $g:(0,\infty)\to{\bf R}$.


Now, note that $f_k$ does not converge uniformly on $(0,\infty)$ means (2) is not true, namely the following holds: $$ \exists \epsilon>0\ \forall N\in{\bf N}\ \exists n\geq N\ \exists x\in E\ \ |f_n(x)-f(x)|\geq \epsilon\tag{3} $$

It is an instructive exercise to check how your "solution" matches (3).

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