[Math] Proving that among any $2n – 1$ integers, there’s always a subset of $n$ which sum to a multiple of $n$

elementary-number-theoryfaqmodular arithmeticpigeonhole-principle

How can one prove that among any $2n – 1$ integers, there's always a subset of $n$ which sum to a multiple of $n$?

It is not hard to see this is equivalent to show that among $2n-1$ residue classes modulo $n$ there are $n$ whose sum is the zero-class. Thus, this problem is an example of a Zero sum problem.

Also, the general case was first proven in the $1961$ paper of Erdős, Ginzburg and Ziv.

This is a resource intended to be part of the ongoing effort to deal with abstract duplicates. There are quite a few posts here related to proving that among any $2n – 1$ integers, there's always a subset of $n$ which sum to a multiple of $n$, with varying degrees of generality from using only specific values of $n$ to proving it for all cases. Each of my following answers deal with a degree of generality by explaining it and then linking to the related existing posts.

However, there are many ways to deal with this problem, including some which may not yet be handled by any posts on this site. Some examples, as suggested by quid's question comment, include: