$(a)$ Recall that reflexivity must hold FOR ALL subsets of a set, including $\varnothing$!
- $\varnothing \subset \mathbb R$.
- But $\varnothing \cap \varnothing = \varnothing$
Hence, since there exists a subset that doesn't satisfy reflexivity, the relation as a whole cannot be reflexive.
$(b)$ You are correct; the relation is symmetric: but it's symmetric because IF $x\cap y \neq \varnothing$, then $y\cap x = x \cap y \neq \varnothing.$
$(c)$ Recheck transitivity, too, to find a counterexample to the property: We want to show that if for any subsets $x, y, w \subseteq \mathbb R\,$ $\;x\,R\,y\;$ and $\;y\,R\,w,\;$ it follows that $\;x\,R\,w\;$ I think you got a little mixed up along the way as to *how the relation is defined. $\;x\,R\, y\;$ means $x\cap y\neq \varnothing$. (The intersection of subset $x$ and subset $y$ is non-empty.) And $\;y\, R \,w$ means $\;y\cap w \neq \varnothing.\;$ It does not necessarily follow that $x\,R\,w\;$, that is, there are counterexamples to $\;x \cap w \neq \varnothing.\;$
- E.g.: let $x, y, w$ be subsets of $\mathbb R$ defined by open intervals of reals: $x = (0, 2),\; y = (1, 3),\; w = (2, 4).\;$ Then $x \cap y = (1, 2) \neq \varnothing,\; y\cap w = (2, 3) \neq \varnothing,\;$ but $\;x\cap w = (0, 2) \cap (2, 4) = \varnothing$
$(d)$ In light of not being reflexive (1), refine your reason for not being irreflexive: There exist sets $x\subseteq \mathbb R$ such that $x \cap x\neq \varnothing$; and you need only provide an example of such a subset $x$ to show the relation is not irreflexive.
Whether the empty relation is reflexive or not depends on the set on which you are defining this relation -- you can define the empty relation on any set $X$.
The statement "$R$ is reflexive" says: for each $x\in X$, we have $(x,x)\in R$. This is vacuously true if $X=\emptyset$, and it is false if $X$ is nonempty.
The statement "$R$ is symmetric" says: if $(x,y)\in R$ then $(y,x)\in R$. This is vacuously true, since $(x,y)\notin R$ for all $x,y\in X$.
The statement "$R$ is transitive" says: if $(x,y)\in R$ and $(y,z)\in R$ then $(x,z)\in R$. Similarly to the above, this is vacuously true.
To summarize, $R$ is an equivalence relation if and only if it is defined on the empty set. It fails to be reflexive if it is defined on a nonempty set.
Best Answer
Here a few comments/corrections. (I am assuming that the empty word $\lambda$ is included, otherwise some answers are different.)