[Math] Proving Nonexistence of Periodic Solutions in a Planar System

ordinary differential equations

I'm asked to prove in two distinctly different ways, that the following system has no periodic solution in the phase plane:
\begin{alignat*}{2}
\frac{dx}{dt} &= -x+4y \\
\frac{dy}{dt} &= -x-y^{3} \\
\end{alignat*}

For the first proof, I simply apply the Bendixson criterion.
Let
\begin{equation*}
f = \left[
\begin{matrix}
f_{1} \\
f_{2}
\end{matrix}
\right].
\end{equation*}
We have that
\begin{alignat*}{2}
f_{1} &= \dot{x} = -x+4y \\
f_{2} &= \dot{y} = -x-y^{3}
\end{alignat*}
$\therefore$
\begin{alignat*}{2}
\frac{\partial f_{1}}{\partial x} &= -1 \\
\frac{\partial f_{2}}{\partial y} &= -3y^{2}
\end{alignat*}
$\therefore$
\begin{alignat*}{2}
\frac{\partial f_{1}}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial f_{2}}{\partial y} &= -1 -2y^{2} \\
&< 0 &&\forall x,y \in \mathbb{R}.
\end{alignat*}

By the Bendixson criterion, there are no periodic orbits (other than singular points) in a simply connected domain when $f$ is continuously differentiable and $\text{div}(f)$ does not change sign nor does it vanish identically. Thus, the system has no periodic orbits.

I find myself at an impasse for a distinct alternative proof.
First, I tried a change to polar coordinates. The result I got was
\begin{alignat*}{2}
\left[
\begin{matrix}
\dot{r}\\
\dot{\theta}
\end{matrix}
\right]
&=
\left[
\begin{matrix}
3r\cos\theta\sin\theta+r\cos^{2}\theta-r^{3}\sin^{4}\theta \\
\cos\theta\sin\theta – 4\sin^{2}\theta
-\cos^{2}\theta-r^{2}\sin^{3}\theta\cos\theta\end{matrix}
\right].
\end{alignat*}
From here I did not see a clear way of solving for $r$ and $\theta$
or analyzing $\dot{r}$ to rule out periodicity.

Another approach that I considered was to use the theory associated with the Poincare-Bendixson theorem. For instance, if I could show that every solution crosses a transversal an infinite number of times then I could rule out a periodic solution. However, I was not sure how to construct such an argument from the given system.

I also wonder if an eigenvalue analysis of a linearization could be used here as well? I would be happy with any distinctly different approach or a hint towards one that I have tried so far. Thanks in advance.

Best Answer

Hint: For a simple second proof consider Lyapunov function $$ V(x,y)=x^2+4y^2. $$

I also wonder if an eigenvalue analysis of a linearization could be used here as well?

Actually it could (not always though) because there are results that state what type of an equilibrium can be inside any closed trajectory, but I do not remember them out the top of me head. But my hint is much simpler.

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