This question pertains to the sequence of functions $f_n(x)=x^n$ on the interval $[0,1]$.
It can be shown this sequence of functions ${f_n}$ converges point-wise to the limit $f$ where $f$ is defined by $f(x)=0$ on $[0,1)$ and $f(x)=1$ at $x=1$.
However, this sequence of functions ${f_n}$ does not converge uniformly to $f$. One way to prove this (which I have seen) is via a theorem which proves that if a sequence of functions ${f_n}$ converges uniformly to $f$, then $f$ is continuous. And clearly it is not the case that $f$ is continuous in our example, so our convergence is not uniform.
However, I have seen another test for uniform convergence on an interval $s$. That is that:
$${\rm lim}\ [{\rm sup}\ \{ | f_n(x)-f(x)|\ :\ x\in S\ \}]=0$$
This conception of uniform convergence can be found in my Walter Rudin analysis book for example. My question is, how can we use this definition of uniform convergence to show $x^n$ is not uniformly convergent?
I am having trouble seeing how to apply this definition to this example, especially since the limit $f$ is defined piece-wise. But I know I need to find the sup of the difference between $f_n$ and $f$ over the interval $[0,1]$ (how do I find this sup?). And then once I find it, I need to take the limit as $n\to\infty$ and show it does not equal $0$.
Thank you for your help!
Best Answer
It all boils down to proving that $$\sup_{x\in [0,1]}|x^n-\chi_{\{1\}}|=\sup_{x\in [0,1)}|x^n-0|=\sup_{x\in[0,1)}x^n=1\not\to 0$$