[Math] Prove that the equation $x^{2}-x\sin(x)-\cos(x)=0$ has only one root in the closed interval $(0,\infty)$.

calculusroots

Here's the graph

(http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%28x%5E2%29-xsenx-cosx%3D0).

The part I'm having trouble with is proving that the root is unique.
I can use the intermediate value theorem to find the interval where the root is, but from that I'm lost.
I know you can look at the first or second derivative, but I don't know how to use that when the sign of sin and cos varies.

Thanks.

Best Answer

Let $f(x) = x^2 - x\sin x - \cos x$, for $x \ge 0$. Then $f$ is continuous with $f(0) = -1 < 0$ and $f(\pi) = \pi^2 + 1 > 0$. So by the intermediate value theorem, $f$ has a zero in $(0,\pi)$. Since

$$f'(x) = 2x - x\cos x = x(2 - \cos x) \ge x(2 - 1) = x > 0$$

on $(0,\infty)$, $f$ is strictly increasing on $(0,\infty)$. Therefore, $f$ has a unique root in $(0,\infty)$.

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